That's sort of my point.simple schoolboy wrote:You've come across Miller, I presume? That's kind of the extent of the relation between an individual right to keep and bear arms and the militia.elliseamos wrote:Looking at a law review for a better explanation than I've received so far it's incredibly frustrating how few 2nd Amendment cases have gone to the Supreme Court.
Current law exists based on the individual right and completely glosses over the "well regulated militia" statement. Breyer points this out in Heller (I think).
That seems like the a major "purpose" of the amendment and were enrollment in a state-regulated militia part of the process to keep ARs in home, I might be better persuaded. As is, the reading is saying the citizens have this individual right to protect themselves but then go completely unchecked beyond that.
And that is my problem with the current position. Yes, it is a right to have guns. It is not meant/intended to be unregulated.
1) Miller v US was 1939
2) The decision says (my words): only weapons that are militia-ready are free from regulation
3) It was 1939
4) Why wasn't every state then required to track ownership by state-militia membership?