Question about the late hit non-call: Because Sherman was off sides it's a "free play" right? So whatever happens after that can't also be enforced, is that correct?Green Habit wrote:Richard Sherman completely wiped out the kicker on an end of half FG attempt. He was called for offsides, but he also should have been called for a late hit. However, the kicker, who took a while to get up, was deemed an "injured player", and due to the lack of the missed personal foul on Sherman, had to sit out a play. Thankfully, the Bills had enough time to spike the ball to get the kicker back on...but then due to some odd official incompetence, the umpire stood over the ball until there were five seconds on the game clock, and the Bills get called for delay of game. The kicker then of course misses it. Since the Bills lost by six, had they had that FG they could have instead kicked a chip shot FG at the end of regulation to send it into overtime.
I'm remembering earlier this year in the Chiefs/Texans game. Texans jump early. Free play for the Chiefs. Alex lobs up a long ball. The ball is intercepted (but this doesn't matter because it's a free play; Chiefs accept the offsides call and that negates the interception) then the defender gets called for taunting the WR. However, that penalty must be declined because the offsides penalty negated the play. So if the Bills accepted the offsides penalty on Sherman, they can't also take a late hit penalty, right?
Of course, this doesn't matter because, to my knowledge, Sherman wasn't even flagged at all. Which is complete bullshit. I'm just trying to understand the rules.
Also, this seems like a dangerous precedent to set. They're going to have to amend the rule this off season because now that the "loophole" has been exposed, what's to stop teams from taking out the kicker at the end of the half/game and doing this same thing?
Super shitty.
